Let us consider f: A → B be many-one function. Let us consider f(a) = p and f(b) = p So, for inverse function we will have \[{{f}^{-1}}\left( p \right)\text{ }=\text{ }a\] and \[{{f}^{-1}}\left( p...
Using the definition, prove that the function f : A→ B is invertible if and only if f is both one-one and onto.
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