Reactions Involved: 4AgNO3 + H3PO2 + 2H2O → 4Ag + H3PO4 + 4HNO3 2HgCl2 + H3PO2 + 2H2O → 2Hg + H3PO4 + 4HCl
PCl5 reacts with finely divided silver on heating and a white silver salt is obtained, which dissolves on adding excess aqueous NH3 solution. Write the reactions involved to explain what happens.
PCl5 reacts with silver to form white silver salt(AgCl). Which than dissolves on adding excess aqueous NH3 to form a soluble complex Reaction Involved: PCl5 + 2Ag → 2AgCl(white ppt.) + PCl3 AgCl +...
Phosphorus has three allotropic forms — (i) white phosphorus (ii) red phosphorus and (iii) black phosphorus. Write the difference between white and red phosphorus on the basis of their structure and reactivity.
White phosphorus 1. It is soft waxy solid having garlic order 2. It is poisonous 3. Has low melting point and boiling point because P4 molecules are held together by weak van der Waal forces of...
Nitric acid forms an oxide of nitrogen on reaction with P4O10. Write the reaction involved. Also, write the resonating structures of the oxide of nitrogen formed.
Reaction Involved: P4O10 + 4HNO3 → 4HPO3 + 2N2O5 White phosphorous is very reactive as compared to red phosphorous due to angular strain in white phosphorous.
Name three oxoacids of nitrogen. Write the disproportionation reaction of that oxoacid of nitrogen in which nitrogen is in +3 oxidation state.
Three oxoacids of nitrogen: 1.Nitric acid(HNO3) 2.Nitrous acid (HNO2) 3.Hyponitrous acid (H2N2O1) + 3 oxidation is shown by HNO2, Therefore it undergoes disproportion reaction, Calculation:...
P4O6 reacts with water according to equation P4O6 + 6H2O → 4H3PO3. Calculate the volume of 0.1 M NaOH solution required to neutralise the acid formed by dissolving 1.1 g of P4O6 in H2O.
Calculation: P4O6 + 6H2O → 4H3PO3 4H3PO3 + 8NaOH → Na2HPO3 + 8H20 P4O6 + 8NaOH → 4Na2HPO3 + 2H2O Moles of P4O6 = 1.1/220 = 0.5 Acid formed by one mole of P4o6 requires = 8 mol Acid formed by 0.005...
White phosphorus reacts with chlorine and the product hydrolyses in the presence of water. Calculate the mass of HCl obtained by the hydrolysis of the product formed by the reaction of 62 g of white phosphorus with chlorine in the presence of water.
Calculation: When white phosphorous reacts with chlorine: P4 + 6Cl2 → 4PCl3 PCl3 + 3H2O → H3PO3 + 4HCl ]*4 P4 +6Cl2 +12H2O → 4H3PO3 +12HCl Moles of white P= 62/124 = 0.5mol 1mol of white P4 produces...
Give an example to show the effect of concentration of nitric acid on the formation of oxidation product.
Example Reactions: 1. 4Zn +10HNO3(dil) → 4Zn(NO3)2 + NH4NO3 + 3H2O 2. 4Zn +10HNO3(dil) → 4Zn(NO3)2 + N2O + 5H2O 3. 4Zn +4HNO3(conc.) → Zn(NO3)2 + NO2 + 2H2O
Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two nucleotides together by phosphodiester linkage. Between which carbon atoms of pentose sugars of nucleotides are Are these linkages present? (i) 5′ and 3′ (ii) 1′ and 5′ (iii) 5′ and 5′ (iv) 3′ and 3′
Option (i) is the answer. Between the pentose sugars of nucleotides, there are 5′ and 3′ connections.
Nucleic acids are the polymers of ______________. (i) Nucleosides (ii) Nucleotides (iii) Bases (iv) Sugars
Option (ii) is the answer. Nucleic acids are nucleotide polymers connected together by phosphodiester linkage.
Which of the following B group vitamins can be stored in our body? (i) Vitamin B1 (ii) Vitamin B2 (iii) Vitamin B6 (iv) Vitamin B12
Option (iv) is the answer. Because vitamin B12 is water insoluble, it can be stored in the body.
Carbohydrates are classified on the basis of their behaviour on hydrolysis and also as reducing or non-reducing sugar. Sucrose is a __________. (i) monosaccharide (ii) disaccharide (iii) reducing sugar (iv) non-reducing sugar
Option (ii) and (iv) are the answers. Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar and a disaccharide.
Monosaccharides contain carbonyl group hence are classified, as aldose or ketose. The number of carbon atoms present in the monosaccharide molecule is also considered for classification. In which class of monosaccharide will you place fructose?
Carbonyl groups can be found in monosaccharides. As a result, they're categorised as either aldose or ketose. Aldose refers to monosaccharides that contain an aldehyde group. Ketose refers to...
Aldopentoses named as ribose and 2-deoxyribose are found in nucleic acids. What is their relative configuration?
D-configuration is the configuration of both aldopentoses. -D-ribose is ribose, while -D-2-deoxyribose is 2-deoxyribose.
Structures of glycine and alanine are given below. Show the peptide linkage in glycylalanine.
Glycylalanine is formed when the hydroxyl group of glycine is bonded to the amine group of alanine via a peptide (-CONH) linkage.
The activation energy for the acid catalysed hydrolysis of sucrose is 6.22 kJ mol–1, while the activation energy is only 2.15 kJ mol–1 when hydrolysis is catalyzed by the enzyme sucrase. Explain.
Biocatalysts are enzymes. By providing an alternative approach, they lower the magnitude of activation energy. The enzyme sucrase lowers the activation energy of sucrose hydrolysis from 6.22 kJ...
(i) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason does not explain the assertion. (ii) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason explain the assertion. (iii) Both assertion and reason are the wrong statements. (iv) The assertion is correct statement and reason is the wrong statement. (v) The assertion is the wrong statement and reason is the correct statement. Assertion: Polytetrafluoroethene is used in making non-stick cookware. Reason: Fluorine has the highest electronegativity
Option (i) is correct Teflon is a chemically inert and thermally stable material that is used to make nonstick cookware.
(i) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason does not explain the assertion. (ii) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason explain the assertion. (iii) Both assertion and reason are the wrong statements. (iv) The assertion is correct statement and reason is the wrong statement. (v) The assertion is the wrong statement and reason is the correct statement. Assertion: Olefinic monomers undergo addition polymerisation. Reason: Polymerisation of vinyl chloride is initiated by peroxides/ persulphates.
Option (i) is correct Polymerization of olefins like ethene results in polymers like polythene.
(i) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason does not explain the assertion. (ii) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason explain the assertion. (iii) Both assertion and reason are the wrong statements. (iv) The assertion is correct statement and reason is the wrong statement. (v) The assertion is the wrong statement and reason is the correct statement. . Assertion: Rayon is a semi-synthetic polymer and is taken as a better choice than cotton fabric. Reason: Mechanical and aesthetic properties of cellulose can be improved by acetylation.
Option (ii) is correct. Rayon is a semi-synthetic polymer that is a better alternative than cotton because acetylation improves the characteristics of cellulose after processing.
Match materials are given in Column I with the polymers given in Column II.
(i) is f (ii) is e (iii) is a (iv) is c (v) is b (vi) is d
Match the polymers given in Column I with the type of linkage present in they have given in Column II.
(i) is b (ii) is d (iii) is a (iv) is d (v) is c
Match the polymer of column I with a correct monomer of column II.
(i) is e (ii) is c (iii) is a (iv) is b (v) is d
Why should the monomers use also polymerisation through free radical pathway be very pure?
Pure monomers are employed instead of polymerization through the free radical pathway because even little impurities serve as inhibitors, causing the chain reaction to abruptly stop and short length...
Which type of biomolecules has some structural similarity with synthetic polyamides? What is this similarity?
Proteins and synthetic polyamides share certain structural similarities. Polyamides, such as Nylon, are made up of Glycine and aminocaproic acid molecules linked together by an amide bond. A similar...
Name the polymers used in laminated sheets and give the name of monomeric units involved in its formation.
In laminated sheets, urea-formaldehyde resin is utilised. The monomeric components used to make laminated sheets are urea and formaldehyde.
What is the role of benzoyl peroxide also polymerisation of alkenes? Explain its mode of action with the help of an example.
By providing chain initiation, benzoyl peroxide functions as an initiator in free radical addition polymerisation of alkenes. The generated radical reacts with the carbon-carbon double bond of an...
To have practical applications why are cross-links required in rubber?
Cross-linking is used to increase these physical qualities by assisting in the binding of its planar polymer sheets, therefore improving elastomeric properties and thermal stability.
Can nucleic acids, proteins and starch be considered as step growth polymers?
Proteins, nucleic acids, and starch are all examples of step-growth polymers. Condensation polymers are step growth polymers. The loss of a simple molecule allows monomers with bifunctional or...
Identify the polymer given below :
This is polyisoprene or natural rubber. This polymer's monomeric unit is 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene.
Identify the type of polymer. —A—B—B—A—A—A—B—A—
In this polymer chain, the monomers A' and 'B' are randomly linked. As an example, this is a copolymer. A When a mixture of two or more unsaturated monomers reacts, a copolymer is formed.
Identify the type of polymer. —A—A—A—A—A—A—
The monomer in this case is –A-. This polymer is a homopolymer since the same or same monomer is repeated to make it.
A natural linear polymer of 2-methyl-1, 3-butadiene becomes hard on treatment with sulphur between 373 to 415 K and —S—S— bonds are formed between chains. Write the structure of the product of this treatment?
The structure of 2-methyl-1,3-butadiene is Rubber vulcanization is the term for this procedure. Sulphur works as a crosslinking agent in this case, stiffening the rubber and giving it better...
Vulcanisation makes rubber ______________. (i) more elastic (ii) soluble in inorganic solvent (iii) crystalline (iv) more stiff
Option (i) and (iv) are the answers. Rubber becomes more elastic and rigid after vulcanization. Sulphur produces cross connections at the reactive locations of double bonds or at their reactive...
Which of the following polymers have vinylic monomer units? (i) Acrilan (ii) Polystyrene (iii) Nylon (iv) Teflon
Option (i), (ii) and (iv) are the answers. The vinylic monomer units of acrilan, polystyrene, and teflon are as follows:
Which of the following monomers form biodegradable polymers? (i) 3-hydroxybutyric acid + 3-hydroxypentanoic acid (ii) Glycine + aminocaproic acid (iii) Ethylene glycol + phthalic acid (iv) Caprolactam
Option (i) and (ii) are the answers. Biodegradable polymers are those that are quickly degraded and are not hazardous to the environment.
Which of the following polymers are condensation polymers? (i) Bakelite (ii) Teflon (iii) Butyl rubber (iv) Melamine formaldehyde resin
Option (i) and (iv) are the answers. Bakelite is a phenol and formaldehyde condensation polymer. Melamine formaldehyde resin is a melamine (2, 4, 6-triamino-1, 3, 5-triazine) and formaldehyde...
Which of the following are addition polymers? (i) Nylon (ii) Melamine formaldehyde resin (iii) Orlon (iv) Polystyrene
Option (iii) and (iv) are the answers. The addition polymers Orion and polystyrene are produced by polymerizing CH2 = CH – CN (acrylonitrile) and C6H5 – CH = CH2 styrene, respectively.
Which of the following polymers, need at least one diene monomer for their preparation? (i) Dacron (ii) Buna-S (iii) Neoprene (iv) Novolac
Option (ii) and (iii) are the answers. (b) (c)
Which of the following polymer can be formed by using the following monomer unit?
Option (iv) is the answer. Nylon -6 is a polymer made from caprolactam polymerization.
is a polymer having monomer units ____________.
Option (i) is the answer.
Which of the following statements is not true about low-density polythene? (i) Tough (ii) Hard (iii) Poor conductor of electricity (iv) Highly branched structure
Option (ii) is the answer. Low density polythene is a strong yet flexible (not too flexible) material with a weak electrical conductivity. Its structure is extremely branching.
In which of the following polymers ethylene glycol is one of the monomer units?
Option (i) is the answer. Condensation polymerization of ethylene glycol and phthalic acid with the removal of the water molecule yields the given polymer.
Which of the following polymer is biodegradable?
Option (C) is the answer. Biodegradable polymers are materials whose chemical and physical properties deteriorate and disintegrate entirely when exposed to microorganisms, aerobic, and anaerobic...
The commercial name of polyacrylonitrile is ______________. (i) Dacron (ii) Orlon (Acrilan) (iii) PVC (iv) Bakelite
Option (ii) is the answer.
Which of the following is not a semisynthetic polymer? (i) cis-polyisoprene (ii) Cellulose nitrate (iii) Cellulose acetate (iv) Vulcanised rubber
Option (i) is the answer M-polyisoprene is a polymer that comes from nature.
Which of the following polymers of glucose is stored by animals? (i) Cellulose (ii) Amylose (iii) Amylopectin (iv) Glycogen
Option (iv) is the answer. Glycogen is a glucose polymer present in animal livers, brains, and muscles. Amylase and amylopectin are structural components of starch, while cellulose is a polymer...
The stabilisation of coordination compounds due to chelation is called the chelate effect. Which of the following is the most stable complex species? (a) [Fe(CO)5] (b) [Fe(CN)6]3– (c) [Fe(C2O4)3]3– (d) [Fe(H2O)6]3+
Solution: (c) arrangement of cycle by linkage between metal particle and ligand balances out the coordination compound. The ligand which chelates the metal particle are known as chelating ligand....
Explain why ozone is thermodynamically less stable than oxygen.
Ozone is less thermodynamically stable because it decomposes into oxygen and this decay leads to heat release, so its entropy is positive whereas the free energy is negative for this ozone.
Explain why the stability of oxoacids of chlorine increases in the order given below: HClO< HClO2< HClO3< HClO4
As the decrease in the electronegativity of the halogen, the tendency of the XO3 group (X = halogens) to withdraw the electrons of the O-H bond has decreased so the perhalic acid strength also...
In the ring test of NO3– ion, Fe2+ ion reduces nitrate ion to nitric oxide, which combines with Fe2+ (aq) ion to form the brown complex. Write the reactions involved in the formation of a brown ring.
Reaction Involved: NO3- + 3Fe2+ + 4H+ → NO + 3Fe2 + 2H2O [Fe(H2O) 6]SO4 + NO → [Fe(H2O) 5NO]SO4 (brown coloured complex)
On reaction with Cl2, phosphorus forms two types of halides ‘A’ and ‘B’. Halide A is a yellowish-white powder but halide ‘B’ is a colourless oily liquid. Identify A and B and write the formulas of their hydrolysis products.
Identification: Halide A - PCl5 (yellowish-white powder) Halide B - PCl3 (colourless oily liquid) Reaction Involved: PCl3 + 3H2O H3PO3 + 3HCl (Hydrolysis of PCl5) PCl5 + H2O POCl3+ 2HCl PCl5 +...
SF6 is known but SCl6 is not. Why?
Fluorine is the most potent oxidizing agent and can oxidize sulfur in its high oxidation state (+6) to form SF6. Chlorine is not a good oxidizing agent, it cannot oxidize sulfur in its high...
Out of H2O and H2S, which one has a higher bond angle and why?
H2O has a higher bond angle than H2S because as we move from oxygen to sulfur the size of the central atom increases and electronegativity decreases due to which bond moving from the central atom...
Give the reason to explain why ClF3 exists but FCl3 does not exist.
Chlorine has some empty area in the d orbital which is why it can show an oxidation state of +3. Fluorine has no vacancy in the d orbital, it cannot show a good oxidation state. Fluorine shows only...
Why is nitric oxide paramagnetic in gaseous state but the solid obtained on cooling it is diamagnetic?
The nitric acid in the form of a gas is present in the form of a monomer. It contains only one unpaired electron and is therefore paramagnetic. In the solid state, it exists as a dimer (N2O2). There...
In PCl5, phosphorus is in sp3d hybridised state but all its five bonds are not equivalent. Justify your answer with reason.
The size of the axial bond is greater than the size of the equatorial bond to endure repulsion because the three equatorial bonds create more repulsion. The two axial P-Cl bonds are therefore longer...
PH3 forms bubbles when passed slowly in water but NH3 dissolves. Explain why?
With water, the PH3 does not form any hydrogen bond. It therefore does not dissolve in water and evaporates as a gas and forms bubbles while the ammonia forms the hydrogen bond and dissolves in water.
Write the structure of pyrophosphoric acid.
Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction showing catalytic oxidation of NH3 by atmospheric oxygen.
Reaction Involved: NH3 + O2 → 4NO + 6H2O The platinum gauze acts as a catalyst to speed up the reaction.
In the preparation of H2SO4 by Contact Process, why is SO3 not absorbed directly in water to form H2SO4?
The dissolution of SO3 in water is very exothermic. This leads to the formation of tiny droplets that are corrosive and can even attack the lead pipes used to cover the tower in the communication...
Which of the following statements are true?
(i) The only type of interactions between particles of noble gases is due to weak dispersion forces. (ii) Ionisation enthalpy of molecular oxygen is very close to that of xenon. (iii) Hydrolysis of...
In which of the following reactions conc. H2SO4 is used as an oxidising reagent?
(i) CaF2+ H2SO4 → CaSO4+ 2HF (ii) 2HI + H2SO4 → I2 + SO2+ 2H2O (iii) Cu + 2H2SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O (iv) NaCl + H2SO4 → NaHSO4 + HCl Correct Answers: (ii) 2HI + H2SO4 → I2 + SO2+ 2H2O...
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) S–S bond is present in H2S2O6 (ii) In peroxosulphuric acid (H2SO5) sulphur is in +6 oxidation state. (iii) Iron powder along with Al2O3 and K2O is used as a catalyst in the preparation of NH3 by...
Which of the following orders are correct as per the properties mentioned against each?
(i) As2O3< SiO2< P2O3< SO2 Acid strength. (ii) AsH3< PH3< NH3 Enthalpy of vaporization. (iii) S < O < Cl < F More negative electron gain enthalpy. (iv) H2O > H2S > H2Se...
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) All three N—O bond lengths in HNO3 are equal. (ii) All P—Cl bond lengths in PCl5 molecule in the gaseous state are equal. (iii) P4 molecule in white phosphorus have angular strain therefore...
Which of the following statements are correct for SO2 gas?
(i) It acts as a bleaching agent in moist conditions. (ii) Its molecule has linear geometry. (iii) It’s dilute solution is used as a disinfectant. (iv) It can be prepared by the reaction of dilute...
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) Among halogens, radius ratio between iodine and fluorine is maximum. (ii) Leaving F—F bond, all halogens have weaker X—X bond than X—X’ bond in interhalogens. (iii) Among interhalogen compounds,...
Which of the following is correct for P4 the molecule of white phosphorus?
(i) It has 6 lone pairs of electrons. (ii) It has six P–P single bonds. (iii) It has three P–P single bonds. (iv) It has four lone pairs of electrons. Correct Answers: (ii) It has six P–P...
Which of the following options are not in accordance with the property mentioned against them?
(i) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 - Oxidising power. (ii) MI > MBr > MCl > MF - Ionic character of metal halide. (iii) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 - Bond dissociation enthalpy. (iv) HI <...
If chlorine gas is passed through a hot NaOH solution, two changes are observed in the oxidation number of chlorine during the reaction. These are ________ and _________.
(i) 0 to +5 (ii) 0 to +3 (iii) 0 to –1 (iv) 0 to +1 Correct Answers: (i) 0 to +5 (iii) 0 to –1 Explanation:
In the preparation of HNO3, we get NO gas by catalytic oxidation of ammonia. The moles of NO produced by the oxidation of two moles of NH3 will be ______.
(i) 2 (ii) 3 (iii) 4 (iv) 6 Correct Answer: (i) 2 Explanation: In the preparation of HNO3, we get NO gas by catalytic oxidation of ammonia. The moles of NO produced by the oxidation of two...
The oxidation state of a central atom in the anion of compound NaH2PO2 will be ______.
(i) +3 (ii) +5 (iii) +1 (iv) –3 Correct Answer: (iii) +1 Explanation: NaH2PO2 = 1 + (2x+1) + x + 2(−2) =0 x−1 = 0 x = +1
Which of the following is not tetrahedral in shape?
(i) NH4+ (ii) SiCl4 (iii) SF4 (iv) SO42- Correct Answer: (iii) SF4 Explanation: The shape of SF4 is not tetrahedral.
Which of the following are peroxoacids of sulphur?
(i) H2SO5 and H2S2O8 (ii) H2SO5 and H2S2O7 (iii) H2S2O7 and H2S2O8 (iv) H2S2O6 and H2S2O7 Correct Answer: (i) H2SO5 and H2S2O8 Explanation: Peroxides of Sulphur - H2SO5 and...
Hot conc. H2SO4 acts as a moderately strong oxidising agent. It oxidises both metals and nonmetals. Which of the following element is oxidised by conc H2SO4 into two gaseous products?
(i) Cu (ii) S (iii) C (iv) Zn Correct Answer: (iii) C Explanation: When hot conc. H2SO4 acts as a moderately strong oxidising agent, it oxidises both metals and nonmetals. The element Carbon...
A black compound of manganese reacts with a halogen acid to give greenish yellow gas. When an excess of this gas reacts with NH3 an unstable trihalide is formed. In this process the oxidation state of nitrogen changes from _________.
(i) –3 to +3 (ii) –3 to 0 (iii) –3 to +5 (iv) 0 to –3 Correct Answer: (i) –3 to +3 Explanation: A black compound of manganese reacts with a halogen acid to give greenish yellow gas. When an...
In the preparation of compounds of Xe, Bartlett had taken O2+Pt F6– as a base compound. This is because
(i) both O2 and Xe has the same size. (ii) both O2 and Xe has the same electron gain enthalpy. (iii) both O2 and Xe has almost same ionisation enthalpy. (iv) both Xe and O2 are gases Correct...
In solid state PCl5 is a _________.
(i) covalent solid (ii) octahedral structure (iii) ionic solid with [PCl6]+ octahedral and [PCl4]– tetrahedra (iv) ionic solid with [PCl4]+tetrahedral and [PCl6]– octahedral Correct Answer:...
Reduction potentials of some ions are given below. Arrange them in decreasing order of oxidising power.
IonReduction potential Eᶱ/V ClO4–Eᶱ = 1.19V IO4–Eᶱ = 1.65V BrO4 –Eᶱ = 1.74V (i) ClO4–> IO4– > BrO4– (ii) IO4– > BrO4– > ClO4– (iii) BrO4– > IO4– > ClO4– (iv) BrO4– > ClO4– >...
Which of the following is isoelectronic pair?
(i) ICl2, ClO2 (ii) BrO2-, BrF2+ (iii) ClO2, BrF (iv) CN-, O3 Correct Answer: (ii) BrO2-, BrF2+ Explanation: BrO2- = 35 + 2 * 8 + 1 => 52 BrF2+ = 35 + 2 * 9 - 1 =>...
On addition of conc. H2SO4 to a chloride salt, colourless fumes are evolved but in case of an iodide salt, violet fumes come out. This is because
(i) H2SO4 reduces HI to I2 (ii) HI is of violet colour (iii) HI gets oxidised to I2 (iv) HI changes to HIO3 Correct Answer: (iii) HI gets oxidised to I2 Explanation: Reaction...
In qualitative analysis when H2S is passed through an aqueous solution of salt acidified with dil. HCl, a black precipitate is obtained. On boiling the precipitate with dil. HNO3, it forms a solution of blue colour. Addition of excess of aqueous solution of ammonia to this solution gives _________.
(i) a deep blue precipitate of Cu (OH)2 (ii) a deep blue solution of [Cu (NH3)4]2+ (iii) a deep blue solution of Cu(NO3)2 (iv) a deep blue solution of Cu(OH)2.Cu(NO3)2 Correct Answer: (ii) a...
In a cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid molecule, how many single and double bonds are present?
(i) 3 double bonds; 9 single bonds (ii) 6 double bonds; 6 single bonds (iii) 3 double bonds; 12 single bonds (iv) Zero double bonds; 12 single bonds Correct Answer: (ii) 6 double bonds; 6...
Which of the following elements can be involved in pπ–dπ bonding?
(i) Carbon (ii) Nitrogen (iii) Phosphorus (iv) Boron Correct Answer: (iii) Phosphorus Explanation: The element which is involved in the pπ–dπ bonding is Phosphorus.
Which of the following pairs of ions are isoelectronic and isostructural?
(i) CO32-, NO3- (ii) ClO3- , CO32- (iii) SO32-, NO3- (iv) ClO3- , SO32– Correct Answer: (i) CO32-, NO3- Explanation: CO32- and NO3- are the pairs of ions that are isoelectronic and...
Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen acids should have the highest bond dissociation enthalpy?
(i) HF (ii) HCl (iii) HBr (iv) HI Correct Answer: (i) HF Explanation: HF is the halogen acids that must have the highest bond dissociation enthalpy.
Bond dissociation enthalpy of E—H (E = element) bonds are given below. Which of the compounds will act as the strongest reducing agent?
Compound∆diss (E—H)/kJ mol–1 NH3389 PH3322 AsH3297 SbH3255 (i) NH3 (ii) PH3 (iii) AsH3 (iv) SbH3 Correct Answer: (iv) SbH3 Explanation: SbH3 is the compound that will act as the strongest...
On heating with concentrated NaOH solution in an inert atmosphere of CO2, white phosphorus gives a gas. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the gas?
(i) It is highly poisonous and has smelled like rotten fish. (ii) It’s a solution in water decomposes in the presence of light. (iii) It is more basic than NH3 (iv) It is less basic than NH3 ...
Which of the following acids forms three series of salts?
(i) H3PO2 (ii) H3BO3 (iii) H3PO4 (iv) H3PO3 Correct Answer: (iii) H3PO4 Explanation: H3PO4 is the acid that form three series of salts.
Strong reducing behaviour of H3PO2 is due to
(i) The low oxidation state of phosphorus (ii) Presence of two –OH groups and one P–H bond (iii) Presence of one –OH group and two P–H bonds (iv) High electron gain enthalpy of phosphorus ...
On heating lead, nitrate forms oxides of nitrogen and lead. The oxides formed are ______.
(i) N2O, PbO (ii) NO2, PbO (iii) NO, PbO (iv) NO, PbO2 Correct Answer: (ii) NO2, PbO Explanation: Reaction Involved - 2Pb(NO3)2 → 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2
Which of the following elements does not show allotropy?
(i) Nitrogen (ii) Bismuth (iii) Antimony (iv) Arsenic Correct Answer: (i) Nitrogen Explanation: The element that do not show allotropy is Nitrogen.
Maximum covalency of nitrogen is ______________.
(i) 3 (ii) 5 (iii) 4 (iv) 6 Correct Answer: (iii) 4 Explanation: Maximum covalency of nitrogen is 4.
Which of the following statements is wrong?
(i) Single N–N bond is stronger than the single P–P bond. (ii) PH3 can act as a ligand in the formation of a coordination compound with transition elements. (iii) NO2 is paramagnetic. (iv) Covalency...
A brown ring is formed in the ring test for NO3– ion. It is due to the formation of
(i) [Fe(H2O)5 (NO)]2+ (ii) FeSO4.NO2 (iii) [Fe(H2O)4 (NO)]2+ (iv) FeSO4.HNO3 Correct Answer: (i) [Fe(H2O)5 (NO)]2+ Explanation: A brown ring is formed in the ring test for NO3– ion. It is...
Elements of group-15 form compounds in +5 oxidation state. However, bismuth forms only one well-characterised compound in +5 oxidation state. The compound is
(i) Bi2O5 (ii) BiF5 (iii) BiCl5 (iv) Bi2S5 Correct Answer: (ii) BiF5 Explanation: Due to the inert pair effect bismuth only exhibit +3 oxidation state and form trihalides. But due to the size...
On heating ammonium dichromate and barium azide separately we get
(i) N2 in both cases (ii) N2 with ammonium dichromate and NO with barium azide (iii) N2O with ammonium dichromate and N2 with barium azide (iv) N2O with ammonium dichromate and NO2 with barium azide...
Assertion: Hydrometallurgy involves dissolving the ore in a suitable reagent followed by precipitation by a more electropositive metal. Reason: Copper is extracted by hydrometallurgy.
(i) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (ii) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion....
Assertion: Zone refining method is very useful for producing semiconductors. Reason: Semiconductors are of high purity.
(i) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (ii) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion....
Assertion: Sulphide ores are concentrated by Froth Flotation method. Reason: Cresols stabilise the froth in the Froth Flotation Method.
(i) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (ii) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion....
Assertion: Zirconium can be purified by Van Arkel method. Reason: ZrI4 is volatile and decomposes at 1800K.
(i) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (ii) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion....
Assertion: Nickel can be purified by the Mond process. Reason: Ni (CO)4 is a volatile compound which decomposes at 460K to give pure Ni.
(i) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (ii) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion....
Match the items of Column I with items of Column II.
Column I Column II (A) Pendulum (1) Chrome steel (B) Malachite (2) Nickel steel (C) Calamine (3) Na3AlF6 (D) Cryolite (4) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 (5) ZnCO3 Column I Column II (A) Pendulum (2)...
Match the items of Column I with the items of Column II
Column I Column II (A) Coloured band (1) Zone refining (B) Impure metal to volatile complex (2) Fractional distillation (C) Purification of Ge and Si (3) Mond Process (D) Purification of mercury (4)...
Match items of Column I with the items of Column II
Column I Column II (A) Cyanide process (1) Ultrapure Ge (B) Froth Floatation Process (2) Dressing of ZnS (C) Electrolytic reduction (3) Extraction of Al (D) Zone refining (4) Extraction of Au ...
Match the items of Column I with the items of Column II
Column I Column II (A) Sapphire (1) Al2O3 (B) Sphalerite (2) NaCN (C) Depressant (3) Co (D) Corundum (4) ZnS (5) Fe2O3 Column I Column II (A) Sapphire (3) Co (B) Sphalerite (4) ZnS (C)...
Match the items of Column I with items of Column II
Column I Column II (A) Blistered Cu (1) Aluminium (B) Blast furnace (2) 2Cu2O + Cu2S → 6Cu + SO2 (C) Reverberatory furnace (3) Iron (D) Hall-Heroult process (4) FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3 (5) 2Cu2S...
Write the chemical reactions involved in the extraction of gold by the cyanide process. Also, give the role of zinc in the extraction.
Reactions Involved: 4Au(s) + 8CN-(aq) + 2H2O(aq) + O2(g) → 4[Au(CN)2]-(aq) + 4OH-(aq) 2[Au(CN)2]-(aq) + Zn(s) → 2Au(s) + [Zn(CN)4]2- (aq) Role of Zinc in this reaction - Reducing...
Give two requirements for vapour phase refining.
Requirements for vapour phase refining: 1. Metal must react easily with a reagent to produce volatile complex. 2. The complex which is volatile should be easily decomposed and recovered.
Write down the reactions taking place in Blast furnace-related to the metallurgy of iron in the temperature range 500-800 K.
Reactions Involved: 1. 3Fe2O3 + CO → 2Fe3O4 + CO2 2. Fe3O4 + CO → 3FeO + 2CO2 3. Fe2O3 + CO → 2FeO + CO2
How are metals used as semiconductors refined? What is the principle of the method used?
1. Semiconductors are purified by the method of zone refining. 2. The refining of the surface depends on the principle that the impurities are more soluble in molten metal than solid metal. 3. The...
What is the role of flux in metallurgical processes?
Role of flux in metallurgical processes: 1. To remove the gangue, certain substances are mixed with it. These are called fluxes. 2. Flux can be basic or acidic. 3. Flux which is acidic removes basic...
What should be the considerations during the extraction of metals by electrochemical method?
Considerations during the extraction of metals by electrochemical method: 1. The reactivity of the formed metal. 2. Electrodes must be made of suitable materials 3. To form a molten mass, flux is...
Why is an external emf of more than 2.2V required for the extraction of Cl2 from brine?
Reaction involved in the extraction of Cl2 from brine: 2Cl- (aq) + 2H2O(l) → 2OH- (aq) + H2(g) + Cl2(g) Calculation: ΔGᶱ = -nFE° ΔGᶱ = +422kJmol-1. E° = 422x103 / 2×96500 E° = - 2.2V For the...
At temperatures above 1073K coke can be used to reduce FeO to Fe. How can you justify this reduction with the Ellingham diagram?
The ∆G formation of FeO is a bit negative than the ∆G formation of carbon monoxide from carbon. Summation of both ∆G will be negative at about 1073K. Above 1073K the FeO production line exceeds the...
Wrought iron is the purest form of iron. Write a reaction used for the preparation of wrought iron from cast iron. How can the impurities of sulphur, silicon and phosphorus be removed from cast iron?
Limestone can be combined with flux to remove impurities of sulfur, silicon and phosphorus. They form an easily removable slag. The metal is removed from the slag by passing through the rollers....
How is copper extracted from low-grade copper ores?
Copper is extracted by hydrometallurgy method from the copper ores which are low graded. The Cu is treated with cast iron or H2 and is leached out by the acid. Reaction Involved: Cu2 (aq) + H2(g) →...
Write two basic requirements for refining of metal by Mond process and by Van Arkel Method.
1. The metal must react easily with a reagent to produce complex. 2. The complex which is volatile must be easily decomposed and do not give off any additional products and recovery must also be...
Although carbon and hydrogen are better-reducing agents they are not used to reduce metallic oxides at high temperatures. Why?
Carbon and hydrogen will not reduce oxides into metals but will instead build hydrides and carbides. Thus, they are not used as the reducing agents.
How do we separate two sulphide ores by Froth Floatation Method? Explain with an example.
The two sulphide ores competing with coming into the froth can be separated by adjusting the oil to the amount of water or by adding depressants such as NaCN. If we have two sulphide metals, ZnS and...
The purest form of iron is prepared by oxidising impurities from cast iron in a reverberatory furnace. Which iron ore is used to line the furnace? Explain by giving a reaction.
The iron ore which is used to line the reverberatory furnace is Haematite ore (Fe2O3). Example: In the following reaction, Haematite ore forms iron and CO. Fe2O3 + 3 C → 2 Fe + 3CO
The mixture of compounds A and B is passed through a column of Al2O3 by using alcohol as eluant. Compound A is eluted in preference to compound B. Which of the compounds A or B, is more readily adsorbed on the column?
Compound A does not absorb well in the column and moves down the column with alcohol i.e. eluant, while compound B is well absorbed in the column and cannot go down the column.
Why is sulphide ore of copper heated in a furnace after mixing with silica?
The copper sulphide ore is burned in the furnace after mixing with silica because the metal impurities present in it can form slag and silica and will be easily removed. Copper is produced as matte...
Why are sulphide ores converted to oxide before reduction?
The Sulphide ores cannot be easily reduced so they are usually converted to oxides because the oxides can be easily reduced.
Which method is used for refining Zr and Ti? Explain with the equation.
The Van Arkel method is used to filter Zr and Ti. Van Arkel's process involves heating the impure metal with Iodine. It builds a complex structure where it decomposes at high temperatures, restores...
Brine is electrolysed by using inert electrodes. The reaction at anode is ________.
(i) Cl–(aq.) →1/2Cl2 (g) + e– ; E°cell = 1.36V (ii) 2H2O(l) → O2(g0 + 4H+ + 4e- ; E°cell = 1.23V (iii) Na+(aq) + e- → Na(s) ; E°cell = 2.71V (iv) H+(aq) + e- → 1/2H2(g) ; E°cell = 0.00V ...
In the metallurgy of aluminium ________________.
(i) Al3+ is oxidised to Al (s). (ii) graphite anode is oxidised to carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide. (iii) the oxidation state of oxygen changes in the reaction at the anode. (iv) the oxidation...
Electrolytic refining is used to purify which of the following metals?
(i) Cu and Zn (ii) Ge and Si (iii) Zr and Ti (iv) Zn and Hg Correct Answer: (i) Cu and Zn Explanation: Electrolytic refining is used to purify Copper and Zinc metals.
Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching the metal with CN–ion. The metal is recovered by ________________.
(i) displacement of metal by some other metal from the complex ion. (ii) roasting of the metal complex. (iii) calcination followed by roasting. (iv) thermal decomposition of the metal complex....
Choose the correct option of temperature at which carbon reduces FeO to iron and produces CO.
(i) Below temperature at point A. (ii) Approximately at the temperature corresponding to point A. (iii) Above temperature at point A but below a temperature at point D. (iv) Above temperature at...
Below point ‘A’ FeO can ______________.
(i) be reduced by carbon monoxide only. (ii) be reduced by both carbon monoxide and carbon. (iii) be reduced by carbon only. (iv) not be reduced by both carbon and carbon monoxide. Correct...
For the reduction of FeO at the temperature corresponding to point D, which of the following statements is correct?
(i) ∆G value for the overall reduction reaction with carbon monoxide is zero. (ii) ∆G value for the overall reduction reaction with a mixture of 1 mol carbon and 1 mol oxygen is positive. (iii) ∆G...
At the temperature corresponding to which of the points in the Figure, FeO will be reduced to Fe by coupling the reaction 2FeO → 2Fe + O2 with all of the following reactions?
(a) C + O2 → CO2 (b) 2C + O2 → 2CO (c) 2CO + O2 → 2 CO2 (i) Point A (ii) Point B (iii) Point D (iv) Point E Correct Answers: (ii) Point B (iv) Point E Explanation: At the temperature...
Which of the following option are correct?
(i) Cast iron is obtained by remelting pig iron with scrap iron and coke using hot air blast. (ii) In the extraction of silver, silver is extracted as cationic complex. (iii) Nickel is purified by...
In the extraction of aluminium by Hall-Heroult process, purified Al2O3 is mixed with CaF2 to
(i) lower the melting point of Al2O3 (ii) increase the conductivity of molten mixture. (iii) reduce Al3+ into Al(s). (iv) acts as a catalyst Correct Answers: (i) lower the melting point of...
Which of the following statements is correct about the role of substances added in the froth floatation process?
(i) Collectors enhance the non-wettability of the mineral particles. (ii) Collectors enhance the wettability of gangue particles. (iii) By using depressants in the process two sulphide ores can be...
In the Froth Floatation process, zinc sulphide and lead sulphide can be separated by ______________.
(i) using collectors. (ii) adjusting the proportion of oil to water. (iii) using depressant. (iv) using froth stabilisers. Correct Answers: (ii) adjusting the proportion of oil to water....
Common impurities present in bauxite are ____________.
(i) CuO (ii) ZnO (iii) Fe2O3 (iv) SiO2 Correct Answers: (iii) Fe2O3 (iv) SiO2 Explanation: Common impurities present in bauxite are Fe2O3 and SiO2
Which of the following ores are concentrated by froth flotation?
(i) Haematite (ii) Galena (iii) Copper pyrites (iv) Magnetite Correct Answers: (ii) Galena (iii) Copper pyrites Explanation: Galena and Copper pyrites are the ores which can be concentrated...
Which of the following reactions occur during calcination?
(i) CaCO3→CaO+CO2 (ii) 4FeS2+11O2→2Fe2O3+8SO2 (iii) 2Al(OH)3→Al2O3+3H2O (iv) Cu2S+2CuO→4Cu+SO2 Correct Answers: (i) CaCO3→CaO+CO2 (iii) 2Al(OH)3→Al2O3+3H2O Explanation:...
For the metallurgical process of which of the ores calcined ore can be reduced by carbon?
(i) haematite (ii) calamine (iii) iron pyrites (iv) sphalerite Correct Answers: (i) haematite (ii) calamine Explanation: Haematite and Calamine are the calcined ores which gets reduced by...
The main reactions occurring in the blast furnace during the extraction of iron from haematite are ________.
(i) Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 (ii) FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3 (iii) Fe2O3 + 3C → 2Fe + 3CO (iv) CaO + SiO2 → CaSiO3 Correct Answers: (i) Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2 (iv) CaO + SiO2 → CaSiO3 Explanation:...
In which of the following method of purification, metal is converted to its volatile compound which is decomposed to give pure metal?
(i) heating with a stream of carbon monoxide. (ii) heating with iodine. (iii) liquation. (iv) distillation. Correct Answers: (i) heating with a stream of carbon monoxide (ii) heating with...
Which of the following statements are correct?
(i) A depressant prevents a certain type of particle to come to the froth. (ii) Copper matte contains Cu2S and ZnS. (iii) The solidified copper obtained from the reverberatory furnace has blistered...
In the extraction of chlorine from brine _____________.
(i) ΔG° for the overall reaction is negative. (ii) ΔG° for the overall reaction is positive. (iii) E° for the overall reaction has a negative value. (iv) E° for the overall reaction has a positive...
In the extraction of chlorine by electrolysis of brine ____________.
(i) oxidation of Cl– ion to chlorine gas occurs. (ii) reduction of Cl– ion to chlorine gas occurs. (iii) For the overall reaction, ∆Gᶱ has a negative value. (iv) a displacement reaction takes place....
When copper ore is mixed with silica, in a reverberatory furnace copper matte is produced. The copper matte contains ____________.
(i) sulphides of copper (II) and iron (II) (ii) sulphides of copper (II) and iron (III) (iii) sulphides of copper (I) and iron (II) (iv) sulphides of copper (I) and iron (III) Correct...
Which of the following reactions is an example of autoreduction?
(i) Fe3O4 + 4CO → 3Fe + 4CO2 (ii) Cu2O + C → 2Cu + CO (iii) Cu2+ (aq) + Fe (s) → Cu (s) + Fe2+ (aq) (iv) Cu2O + 1/2Cu2S → 3Cu + 1/2SO2 Correct Answer: (iv) Cu2O + 1/2Cu2S → 3Cu + 1/2SO2...
A number of elements are available in earth’s crust but most abundant elements are ____________.
(i) Al and Fe (ii) Al and Cu (iii) Fe and Cu (iv) Cu and Ag Correct Answer:(i) Al and Fe Explanation: The most abundant elements in the earth's crust are Aluminium (8.1 %) and Iron...
In the extraction of copper from its sulphide ore, the metal is formed by the reduction of Cu2O with
(i) FeS (ii) CO (iii) Cu2S (iv) SO2 Correct Answer: (iii) Cu2S Explanation: Reaction Involved - 2Cu2S+3O2 →2Cu2O+2SO2 2 Cu2O+ Cu2S →6Cu+ SO2
Zone refining is based on the principle that ___________
(i) impurities of low boiling metals can be separated by distillation. (ii) impurities are more soluble in molten metal than in solid metal. (iii) different components of a mixture are differently...
Why is Fe(OH)3 colloid positively charged, when prepared by adding FeCl3 to hot water?
When FeCl3 is dissolved in hot water, hydrated ferric oxide forms. This highly hydrated oxide hydrate adsorbs Fe3+ ions results in a positively charged colloid.
Why do physisorption and chemisorption behave differently with rising in temperature?
1. In physisorption, with increasing temperature, the bond between adsorbent and adsorbate weakens and the amount of adsorbate decreases. 2. In chemisorption, the amount of activation energy needed...
What happens when dialysis is prolonged?
If dialysis continues for a long time, the electrolyte deposits present in the blood are also completely removed and blood coagulation is established.
Why does the white precipitate of silver halide become coloured in the presence of dye eosin?
The silver halide surface acts as a good adsorbent. It can be able to adsorb the pigment present in the eosin dye. So, the silver halide seems to be colored.
What is the role of activated charcoal in a gas mask used in coal mines?
The activated charcoal works as a good adsorbent because it is porous. Because of this, in the coal mines, it is used to provide fresh air for the breathing purpose via a gas mask.
Compound ‘A’ with molecular formula C4H9Br is treated with aq. KOH solution. The rate of this reaction depends upon the concentration of the compound ‘A’ only. When another optically active isomer ‘B’ of this compound was treated with aq. KOH solution, the rate of reaction was found to be dependent on the concentration of compound and KOH both. (i) Write down the structural formula of both compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’. (ii) Out of these two compounds, which one will be converted to the product with an inverted configuration.
Because the rate of reaction of compound ‘A' (C4H9Br) with aqueous KOH is solely determined by the concentration of compound ‘A,' the reaction happens via the SN1 mechanism, and product ‘A' is...
Classify the following compounds as primary, secondary and tertiary halides. (i) 1-Bromobut-2-ene (ii) 4-Bromopent-2-ene (iii) 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane
(i)A main halide is 1-bromobut-2-ene. (ii) Bromine is linked to the secondary carbon atom in 4-Bromopent-2-ene, making it a secondary halide. (iii) Bromine is linked to the tertiary carbon atom in...
Draw other resonance structures related to the following structure and find out whether the functional group present in the molecule is ortho, para directing or meta directing.
Because electron density is higher at ortho and para locations, the functional groups contained in these compounds are ortho-para directed.
Which of the products will be a major product in the reaction given below? Explain. CH3CH=CH2 + HI → CH3CH2CH2I + CH3CHICH30 (A) (B)
The molecule (B) will be the reaction's main product. This addition reaction is carried out according to Markovnikoff's rule, in which the hydrogen from the hydrogen halide is added to the carbon...
Which of the following compounds (a) and (b) will not react with a mixture of NaBr and H2SO4. Explain why?
Br2 gas is produced when NaBr and H2SO4 are combined. Because of the stable molecule created as a result of resonance stabilisation, molecule (b) will not react with Br2 gas.
Out of o-and p-bromobenzene which one has a higher melting point and why?
Because the symmetry of p-dibromobenzene allows the molecule to fit better in a crystal lattice, it has a higher melting point. As a result, breaking the bonds between the molecules needs a greater...
Which of the following compounds can be classified as aryl halides? (i) p-ClC6H4CH2CH(CH3)2 (ii) p-CH3CHCl(C6H4)CH2CH3 (iii) o-BrH2C-C6H4CH(CH3)CH2CH3 (iv) C6H5-Cl
Option (i) and (iv) are the answers. Because the halogen atom is directly linked to the aromatic ring in compounds (i) and (iv), these compounds are classed as aryl halides.
Which of the following compounds are gem-dihalides? (i) Ethylidene chloride (ii) Ethylene dichloride (iii) Methylene chloride (iv) Benzyl chloride
Option (i) and (iii) are the answers. Dihalides with two halogen atoms linked to the same carbon atom are known as gem-dihalides. Gem-dihalides are formed when two halogen atoms are present on the...
Which of the following statements are correct about the kinetics of this reaction? (i) The rate of reaction depends on the concentration of only (b). (ii) The rate of reaction depends on the concentration of both (a) and (b). (iii) Molecularity of reaction is one. (iv) Molecularity of reaction is two.
Option (i) and (iii) are the answers. The SN1 mechanism is used in the given reaction. The production of carbocation is a gradual process in the SN1 mechanism. As a result, the pace of reaction is...
arrange the compounds in increasing order of the rate of reaction towards nucleophilic substitution.(i) (a) < (b) < (c) (ii) (b) < (a) < (c) (iii) (c) < (b) < (a) (iv) (a) < (c) < (b)
Option (iii) is the answer. The amount of electron releasing groups increases the reactivity of aryl halides; the fewer the electron releasing groups, the slower the rate of nucleophilic...
Which of the following compounds will give racemic mixture on nucleophilic substitution by OH– ion?(i) (a) (ii) (a), (b), (c) (iii) (b), (c) (iv) (a), (c)
Option (i) is the answer. At least one chiral carbon must be present in the molecule to display racemic mixing. Chiral carbon is an asymmetric carbon that is linked to four distinct sorts of atoms...
Reaction of C6H5CH2Br with aqueous sodium hydroxide follows ____________. (i) SN1 mechanism (ii) SN2 mechanism (iii) Any of the above two depending upon the temperature of the reaction (iv) Saytzeff rule
Option (i) is the answer. The $S_N$ 1 mechanism operates in watery media. As a result of this reaction, a stable carbocation forms as an intermediate.
Molecules whose mirror image is non-superimposable over them are known as chiral. Which of the following molecules is chiral? (i) 2-Bromobutane (ii) 1-Bromobutane (iii) 2-Bromopropane (iv) 2-Bromopropan-2-ol
Chiral molecules are those that lack a plane of symmetry as well as a centre of symmetry.. It is a chiral molecule because it lacks the plane of symmetry and the centre of symmetry. Option (i) is...
What should be the correct IUPAC name for diethylbromomethane? (i) 1-Bromo-1,1-diethylmethane (ii) 3-Bromopentane (iii) 1-Bromo-1-ethylpropane (iv) 1-Bromopentane
Option (ii) is the answer. Diethylbromomethane's proper IUPAC designation is 3 - Bromopentane. $C_5H_{11}Br$ is the chemical formula for it.
Which is the correct IUPAC name for? (i) 1-Bromo-2-ethylpropane (ii) 1-Bromo-2-ethyl-2-methylethane (iii) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane (iv) 2-Methyl-1-bromobutane
Option (iii) is the answer. correct IUPAC name for given compound is 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane
The order of reactivity of following alcohols with halogen acids is ___________.(i) (A) > (B) > (C) (ii) (C) > (B) > (A) (iii) (B) > (A) > (C) (iv) (A) > (C) > (B)
Option (ii) is the answer. Alcohol reactivity towards halogen acids diminishes in the following order: (C) > (B) > (A) Because tertiary carbocation is the most stable of the three, it is...
Which of the following are benzylic alcohols?
Option (ii) and (iii) are the answers. Benzylic alcohols, as we all know, are molecules with an alcohol functional group on a carbon atom that is directly linked to the Benzene ring. Because the –OH...
Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of boiling point. Propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-ol (i) Propan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, pentan-1-ol (ii) Propan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, pentan-1-ol (iii) Pentan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, butan-1-ol, propan-1-ol (iv) Pentan-1-ol, butan-1-ol, butan-2-ol, propan-1-ol
Option (i) is the answer As the moleculer mass of the alcohol grows, the boiling point rises. Furthermore, $1^0$ alcohols have greater boiling points than $2^0$ alcohols among isomeric alcohols.
How will you distinguish between the dispersed phase and dispersion medium in an emulsion?
Emulsion is the dispersion of one liquid into another invisible liquid. The dispersed phase is always available in lesser amount when compared to the dispersion medium.
Based on Hardy-Schulze rule explain why the coagulating power of phosphate is higher than chloride.
According to Hardy-Schulze law, electrolyte coagulation properties depend on the valency of coagulation ion. The higher the charge in flocculating ion the smaller the amount of electrolyte required...
Why does the bleeding stop by rubbing moist alum?
Moist alum is highly charged with Al3+ and SO42-ions which activate the charged protein molecules present in the blood. This causes the blood protein to coagulate and stops bleeding.
Which of the following compounds will react with sodium hydroxide solution in water? (i) C6H5OH (ii) C6H5CH2OH (iii) (CH3)3 COH (iv) C2H5OH
Option (i) is the answer Because phenols are more acidic than alcohols, they will react with a sodium hydroxide solution in water.
How does the precipitation of colloidal smoke take place in Cottrell precipitator?
The Cottrell precipitator is a filtering tool that removes fine particles such as dust and fumes from flowing electricity. It neutralizes the charge on carbon particles.
Why does leather get hardened after tanning?
When the skin is soaked in tannin, coagulation occurs as a result of a combination of animal skin (positively charged) and tannin (negatively charged). Thus resulting in the hardening of the leather...
Why are some medicines more effective in the colloidal form?
The colloidal solution has a larger surface area than the true solution. The surface area is directly proportional to the level of assimilation in our body. So, the drugs work effectively when...
How do emulsifying agents stabilise the emulsion?
1. Emulsifying agents stabilize the emulsion by forming interfacial film between the suspended particles and the dispersion medium. 2. Example: Agar (used in foods)
A colloid is formed by adding FeCl3 in excess of hot water. What will happen if excess sodium chloride is added to this colloid?
FeCl3 when dissolved in hot water, forms hydrated ferric oxide, a sol which is positively charged due to the absorption of Fe3+ ions. By adding NaCl, the negatively charged chloride ions reduce the...
What causes Brownian motion in colloidal dispersion?
1. The Brownian motion occurs because of the collision between the colloidal particles and dispersion medium. 2. The movement causes the stability of the colloidal solution.
What happens when the electric field is applied to a colloidal solution?
When an electric field is applied to a colloidal solution, the colloidal particles move to different electrodes depending on their charge.
Why do we add alum to purify water?
1. Alum is basically the potassium aluminum sulphate [KAl(SO4)2]. 2. When dissolved in alkaline bicarbonate it forms a gelatinous precipitate. 3. When added to water it attracts colloidal particles...
What is collodion?
Collodion: 1. Collodion is a 4% solution of nitrocellulose prepared in a mixture of alcohol and ether. 2. Collodion is a solution which is syrupy in texture and can be inflammable.
Gelatin which is a peptide is added in icecreams. What can be its role?
Gelatin acts as an emulsifying agent for hydrophilic colloid. They absorb water content from ice cream and are also a good source of protein. They also give a soft texture and a glossy appearance to...
How many alcohols with molecular formula C4H10O are chiral? (i) 1 (ii) 2 (iii) 3 (iv) 4
Option (i) is the answer. Alcohols with the chemical formula $C_4H_{10}O$ can have a variety of structures. A similar chemical formula may be used to make a total of four alcohols. Butan-1-ol,...
Why is it important to have a clean surface in surface studies?
The surface of the adsorbent adsorbs the gases that are desirable in the process of adsorption. If an area already has other gases, it is saturated so it cannot adsorb the desired gases from the...
Why is chemisorption referred to as activated adsorption?
Chemisorption involves the formation of chemical bonds that require activating energy. That's why it's called activated adsorption.
What type of solutions are formed on dissolving different concentrations of soap in the water?
The soap solution at low concentration acts as a standard electrolytic solution. But in the higher concentrations it behaves like a colloid and forms micelles.
What happens when gelatin is mixed with gold sol?
When the gelatin is mixed with gold sol, the gelatin forms a protective layer on the gold sol, thus preventing it from getting coagulated. So gold sol recovers by adding gelatin, which is a...
How does it become possible to cause artificial rain by spraying silver iodide on the clouds?
The Clouds hold charges as they are colloids. Silver iodide (AgI) electrolyte assists in the process of coagulation between colloidal water particles in a cloud. Thus, forming large raindrops that...
Which of the following phenomenon occurs when a chalk stick is dipped in ink?
(i) adsorption of coloured substance (ii) adsorption of solvent (iii) absorption and adsorption both of solvent (iv) absorption of solvent Correct Answers: (i) adsorption of coloured...
Out of o-nitrophenol and o-cresol which is more acidic?
In ortho-nitrophenol, there is an electron-withdrawing group NO2 in the ortho position, which increases the acidic strength and makes it more acidic. There is an electron releasing group in o-cresol...
Write the structures of the isomers of alcohols with molecular formula C4H10O. Which of these exhibits optical activity?
Because Butan-2-ol possesses a chiral carbon atom, it is the only one that displays optical activity.
Arrange water, ethanol and phenol in increasing order of acidity and give a reason for your answer.
Ethanol water phenol ethanol ethanol ethanol ethanol ethanol ethanol ethanol ethanol Because it forms the phenoxide ion after deprotonation and is stabilized by resonance, phenol is more acidic....
In a reaction, catalyst changes ____________.
(i) physically (ii) qualitatively (iii) chemically (iv) quantitatively Correct Answers: (i) physically (ii) qualitatively Explanation: In a reaction, catalyst changes physically and...
Which phenomenon occurs when an electric field is applied to a colloidal solution and electrophoresis is prevented?
(i) Reverse osmosis takes place. (ii) Electro osmosis takes place. (iii) Dispersion medium begins to move. (iv) Dispersion medium becomes stationary. Correct Answers: (ii) Electro osmosis...